this is an extra credit question on my take home test..

i think i attached it to the post here but it would read...

the integral from -1 to 1 of [ f(x) - f(-x) ] / 2

he wants us to explain why it is = 0 for any f(x)

I'm pretty sure it has to do with the numerator being 0 because you are subtracting the opposite of f(x) from f(x) ... ? I think

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