this is an extra credit question on my take home test..
i think i attached it to the post here but it would read...
the integral from -1 to 1 of [ f(x) - f(-x) ] / 2
he wants us to explain why it is = 0 for any f(x)
I'm pretty sure it has to do with the numerator being 0 because you are subtracting the opposite of f(x) from f(x) ... ? I think